Comments on: Forex PIPs http://www.series34exam.com/forex-pip/ Sun, 05 Feb 2012 03:06:37 +0000 http://wordpress.org/?v=2.7.1 hourly 1 By: Big Piping http://www.series34exam.com/forex-pip/comment-page-1/#comment-3840 Big Piping Fri, 14 Jan 2011 16:24:13 +0000 http://www.series34exam.com/?p=78#comment-3840 PIP stands for Percentage In Point and is the smallest price change that a given exchange rate can make if the pair is priced to four decimal places, this is the equivalent of 1/100 of one percent, or one basis point, if priced to five decimal places the smallest price move is known as a fractional PIP. Pips are always valued in CCY2 so when USD is CCY2 no conversion is required. When USD is CCY2 AKA “Quote Currency”, “Secondary Currency”, “Terms Currency”, “Variable Currency”, or “Counter Currency” use either one of these formulas to calculate the value of a Pip: Pip Value = Traded Amount x 0.0001, or Pip Value = Traded Amount / 10,000 When USD is CCY1 AKA “Base Currency”, “Transaction Currency”, or “Traded Currency” use one of these formulas to calculate the value of a Pip: Pip Value = (Traded Amount x 0.0001) / Rate, or Pip Value = (Traded Amount / 10,000) / Rate, or Pip Value = Traded Amount / (10,000 x Rate) Vbala is correct however incomplete as the post is missing the calculation for the Variable Pip value. Posts 1,3,and 4 contain both, correct and incorrect statements or formulas. PIP stands for Percentage In Point and is the smallest price change that a given exchange rate can make if the pair is priced to four decimal places, this is the equivalent of 1/100 of one percent, or one basis point, if priced to five decimal places the smallest price move is known as a fractional PIP.

Pips are always valued in CCY2 so when USD is CCY2 no conversion is required.

When USD is CCY2 AKA “Quote Currency”, “Secondary Currency”, “Terms Currency”, “Variable Currency”, or “Counter Currency” use either one of these formulas to calculate the value of a Pip:
Pip Value = Traded Amount x 0.0001, or
Pip Value = Traded Amount / 10,000

When USD is CCY1 AKA “Base Currency”, “Transaction Currency”, or “Traded Currency” use one of these formulas to calculate the value of a Pip:
Pip Value = (Traded Amount x 0.0001) / Rate, or
Pip Value = (Traded Amount / 10,000) / Rate, or
Pip Value = Traded Amount / (10,000 x Rate)

Vbala is correct however incomplete as the post is missing the calculation for the Variable Pip value.

Posts 1,3,and 4 contain both, correct and incorrect statements or formulas.

]]> By: Michael http://www.series34exam.com/forex-pip/comment-page-1/#comment-3290 Michael Fri, 22 Oct 2010 15:51:48 +0000 http://www.series34exam.com/?p=78#comment-3290 All pips when USD is the quote currecny is $10 for the standard 100,000 lot... When USD is base currency more calculation is involved... USD/CAD selling at 1.0265 right now is $9.74, just divide the quote by 1 and move the decimal a couple places, it's that simple... All pips when USD is the quote currecny is $10 for the standard 100,000 lot…

When USD is base currency more calculation is involved…

USD/CAD selling at 1.0265 right now is $9.74, just divide the quote by 1 and move the decimal a couple places, it’s that simple…

]]> By: Jantz Hoffman http://www.series34exam.com/forex-pip/comment-page-1/#comment-3173 Jantz Hoffman Wed, 15 Sep 2010 17:16:29 +0000 http://www.series34exam.com/?p=78#comment-3173 No problem Bart, but reading over my comment I would like to correct and amend. The formula for valuing a pip is as follows. (one pip, with proper decimal placement/currency exchange rate) x (Notional Amount) The pip value of pairs where the USD is the base pair will have a notional amount in USD while pairs that the USD is not the base pair will will have notional amounts in the base pari (GBP, EUR, AUD). This will effect your leverage and margin used as you need to use more margin to take a 100,000 GBP/USD position (100,000 GBP =100,000 X GBP/USD exchange rate) than a 100,000 USD/CHF position (100,000 USD). Pairs where the base piar is USD the P/L is already calcuated in USD. As for pairs where the USD is the secondary currency P/L will be in the base currency and need to be exchanged back to USD. It is the addtional amount of margin used to take the position that makes the pip value of pairs in which the USD is the quote currency a round number (assuming 100,000 or 10,000 base pair size trades). Hope this helps. No problem Bart, but reading over my comment I would like to correct and amend. The formula for valuing a pip is as follows.
(one pip, with proper decimal placement/currency exchange rate) x (Notional Amount)

The pip value of pairs where the USD is the base pair will have a notional amount in USD while pairs that the USD is not the base pair will will have notional amounts in the base pari (GBP, EUR, AUD). This will effect your leverage and margin used as you need to use more margin to take a 100,000 GBP/USD position (100,000 GBP =100,000 X GBP/USD exchange rate) than a 100,000 USD/CHF position (100,000 USD). Pairs where the base piar is USD the P/L is already calcuated in USD. As for pairs where the USD is the secondary currency P/L will be in the base currency and need to be exchanged back to USD. It is the addtional amount of margin used to take the position that makes the pip value of pairs in which the USD is the quote currency a round number (assuming 100,000 or 10,000 base pair size trades).

Hope this helps.

]]> By: admin http://www.series34exam.com/forex-pip/comment-page-1/#comment-3168 admin Tue, 14 Sep 2010 22:50:42 +0000 http://www.series34exam.com/?p=78#comment-3168 Jantz, Thanks so much for adding additional information, it is very helpful. Regards, Bart Jantz,

Thanks so much for adding additional information, it is very helpful.

Regards,
Bart

]]> By: Jantz Hoffman http://www.series34exam.com/forex-pip/comment-page-1/#comment-3164 Jantz Hoffman Tue, 14 Sep 2010 22:39:14 +0000 http://www.series34exam.com/?p=78#comment-3164 I believe PIP stands for price interst point. And there is a specific calculation for them. Furthermore the EUR/USD pip value is only $10 per standard lot because the exchange rate is greater than 1.0000. If the rate were to dip below 1.0000 then the value of a pip would no longer be $10. It would be less. The reason for the value being $10 is due to the fact that you are requried to use more margin for a 100,000 eur/usd lot than a 100,000 usd/chf lot. As the the base currrency is differnt and thust the capital requried for the position is defferetn. There is also no such thing as a stardard lot in institutional trading...just dollars, interest, and exchange rates. I believe PIP stands for price interst point. And there is a specific calculation for them. Furthermore the EUR/USD pip value is only $10 per standard lot because the exchange rate is greater than 1.0000. If the rate were to dip below 1.0000 then the value of a pip would no longer be $10. It would be less. The reason for the value being $10 is due to the fact that you are requried to use more margin for a 100,000 eur/usd lot than a 100,000 usd/chf lot. As the the base currrency is differnt and thust the capital requried for the position is defferetn. There is also no such thing as a stardard lot in institutional trading…just dollars, interest, and exchange rates.

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